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"Hear O' Israel, HaShem is our G-d, HaShem alone"

Psalm 2:2, 6-8


The missionaries will say that Psalm 2:2,6-7 refers to Jesus and that the Messiah(anointed one) mentioned in same psalm where G-d has begotten a son.

The Reply is: Context is important as is the author of the Psalm. Psalm 2:2 says (JPS): "kings of the earth take their stand, and regents intrigue together against the L-rd and against His anointed?"

Since there have been many anointeds (Aaron, David, Saul, Solomon, all high priests, Cyrus...) and many of the Psalms were written by David, isn't it more likely that David is refering to himself here? Considering that the next Psalm is about David fleeing from his son Absalom, it is the logical conclusion.

Psalm 2:6-8 says (JPS): " "But I have installed My king on Zion, My holy mountain!" Let me tell of the decree: the L-rd said to me "You are my son, I have fathered you this day. Ask it of me and I will make the nations your domain; your estate, the limits of the earth."

Notice there is a similar passage in 2 Samuel 7:14 ("I will be his Father, and he shall be my son. If he commits iniquity, I will chasten him with the rod of men, and with such plagues as befall the sons of men;" from the JCL on CD-ROM) and 1 Chronicles 22:7-10 (" And David said to Solomon, my son, as for me, it was in my mind to build a house to the name of the L-RD my G-d; And the word of the L-RD came to me, saying, you have shed abundant blood, and have made great wars; you shall not build a house to My Name, because you have shed much blood upon the earth in my sight. . Behold, a son shall be born to you, who shall be a man of rest; and I will give him rest from all his enemies around; for his name shall be Solomon, and I will give peace and quiet to Israel in his days. . He shall build a house for My Name; and he shall be My son, and I will be his Father; and I will establish the throne of his kingdom over Israel forever."), both of them are refering to Solomon. Since this Psalm is about David, isn't it more logical to conclude that G-d is treating David just as He will later treat his son Solomon? This does not point to Jesus, but to David.

You might also not from this that the title "son of G-d" to a Jew has two meaning, 1) a king of the line of David and Solomon or 2) any human or Jew, as we are all metaphoric children of G-d. It never has the Greek meaning that the New Testament gives it--a divine being, a literal son of G-d. Greek "gods" have literal sons, the One G-d, does not. By claiming to be the "son of G-d" the Jewish Jesus may have been saying he was a king, or he may have been saying that like all Jews or all humans, he is a child of G-d. The Greek consept of "son of G-d" would never have occured to a Jew.


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© Copyright 1997 by G. Shapiro